Part 2 MCQ ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

Part 2

MCQ ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

61. For Air Pollution which section of the Act (1981) deals with the functions of State Board?

(A) 11

(B) 13

(D) 23

Answer (C) section 17.

Explanation : Functions of State Boards.—(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, and without prejudice to the performance of its functions, if any, under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 (Act 6 of 1974), the functions of a State Board shall be—

(a) to plan a comprehensive programme for the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution and to secure the execution thereof;

(b) to advise the State Government on any matter concerning the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution;

(d) to collaborate with the Central Board in organising the training of persons engaged or to be engaged in programmes relating to prevention, control or abatement of air pollution and to organise mass-education programme relating thereto;

(e) to inspect, at all reasonable times, any control equipment, industrial plant or manufacturing process and to give, by order, such directions to such persons as it may consider necessary to take steps for the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution;

(f) to inspect air pollution control areas at such intervals as it may think necessary, assess the quality of air therein and take steps for the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution in such areas;

(g) to lay down, in consultation with the Central Board and having regard to the standards for the quality of air laid down by the Central Board, standards for emission of air pollutants into the atmosphere from industrial plants and automobiles or for the discharge of any air pollutant into the atmosphere from any other source whatsoever not being a ship or an aircraft: Provided that different standards for emission may be laid down under this clause for different industrial plants having regard to the quantity and composition of emission of air pollutants into the atmosphere from such industrial plants;

(h) to advise the State Government with respect to the suitability of any premises or location for carrying on any industry which is likely to cause air pollution;

(i) to Perform such other functions as may be prescribed or as may, from time to time, be entrusted to it by the Central Board or the State Government;

(j) to do such other things and to perform such other acts as it may think necessary for the proper discharge of its functions and generally for the purpose of carrying into effect the purposes of this Act.

(2) A State Board may establish or recognise a laboratory or laboratories to enable the State Board to perform its functions under this section efficiently.

62. For Air Pollution for the performance of its functions efficiently State Board may establish a Laboratory under section ____________ of the Act (1981).

(A) 14 (1)

(B) 17 (1)

(D) 17(2)

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Section 17 (2) - A State Board may establish or recognise a laboratory or laboratories to enable the State Board to perform its functions under this section efficiently.

63. For Air Pollution under which section of the Act (1981) state government has power to declare air pollution control areas?

(A) 17 (1)

(B) 19 (1)

(D) 31 (1)

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Power to declare air pollution control areas.—(1) The State Government may, after consultation with the State Board, by notification in the Official Gazette declare in such manner as may be prescribed, any area or areas within the State as air pollution control area or areas for the purposes of this Act.

64. For Air Pollution section _______ of the Act (1981) Empowers the State government to establish state Air Laboratory.

(A) 21

(B) 23

(D) 31

Answer : (C)

Explanation - 28. State Air Laboratory.—(1) The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,—

(a) establish one or more State Air Laboratories; or

(b) specify one or more laboratories or institutes as State Air Laboratories to carry out the functions entrusted to the State Air Laboratory under this Act.

(2) The State Government may, after consultation with the State Board, make rules prescribing—

(a) the functions of the State Air Laboratory;

(b) the procedure for the submission to the said Laboratory of samples of air or emission for analysis or tests, the form of the Laboratory’s report thereon and the fees payable in respect of such report;

65. For Air Pollution which sections of the AIR Act (1981) deal with the penalties & procedures?

(A) 21 to 33

(B) 37 to 46

(D) 61 to 73

Answer : (B)

Explanation: CHAPTER VI- PENALTIES AND PROCEDURE

37. Failure to comply with the provisions of section 21 or section 22 or with the directions issued under section 31A.

38. Penalties for certain acts.

39. Penalty for contravention of certain provisions of the Act.

40. Offences by companies.

41. Offences by Government Departments.

42. Protection of action taken in good faith.

43. Cognizance of offences.

44. Members, officers and employees of Board to be public servants.

45. Reports and returns.

46. Bar of jurisdiction.

66. The Environment (Protection) Act 1986 [EPA,1986] is designed to supply the deficiencies of _______ which had failed to produce desired effect.

(A) Water (Prevention & control of pollution) Act 1974

(B) Air (Prevention & control of pollution) Act 1981

(D) Either (A) & (B)

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Environment (Protection) Act 1986 [EPA,1986] is designed to supply the deficiencies of both act under which had failed to produce desired effect.

67. The Environment Protection Act (EPA) 1986 extends to whole of India _________.

(A) Except Jammu & Kashmir

(B) Including Jammu & Kashmir

(D) None of above

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Applicable to whole India including J&K ( J&K Reorganisation act, 2019)

68. Which section of EPA 1986 defines Environment?

(A) 2 (a)

(B) 2 (b)

(D) 2 (d)

Answer : (A)

Explanation : “Environment” includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists among and between water, air and land, and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property.

69. Which section of EPA 1986 defines Environmental pollution?

(A) 2 (a)

(B) 2 (c)

(D) 3 (c)

Answer : (B)

Explanation : “Environmental Pollution” means the presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant.

70. Which section of the EPA 1986 defines Environmental Pollutant?

(A) 2 (b)

(B) 2 (e)

(D) 3 (e)

Answer : (A)

Explanation : "Environmental Pollutant” means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.

71. Which section of the EP Act 1981, empowers central Government to constitute Authorities for the Environmental Protection?

(A) 3 (3)

(B) 4 (4)

(D) 8 (1)

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Central Government may, if it considers it necessary or expedient so to do for the purposes of this Act, by order, published in the Official Gazette, constitute an authority or authorities by such name or names as may be specified in the order for the purpose of exercising and performing such of the powers and functions (including the power to issue directions under section 5) of the Central Government under this Act and for taking measures with respect to such of the matters referred to in sub-section (2) as may be mentioned in the order and subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government and the provisions of such order, such authority or authorities may exercise the powers or perform the functions or take the measures so mentioned in the order as if such authority or authorities had been empowered by this Act to exercise those powers or perform those functions or take such measures.

72. Which chapter of the EP Act 1986 deals with the prevention, control and abatement of Environmental Pollution?

(A) II

(B) III

(D) V

Answer : (B)

Explanation : CHAPTER III-PREVENTION, CONTROL & ABATEMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL Pollution .

73. Under which section of EPA (1986) the central Government or any officer empowered by it has power to take sample and procedure to be followed in connection there with?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(D) 13

Answer : (C)

Explanation : section - 11. Power to take sample and procedure to be followed in connection therewith.—(1) The Central Government or any officer empowered by it in this behalf, shall have power to take, for the purpose of analysis, samples of air, water, soil or other substance from any factory, premises or other place in such manner as may be prescribed.

(2) The result of any analysis of a sample taken under sub-section (1) shall not be admissible in evidence in any legal proceeding unless the provisions of sub-sections (3) and (4) are complied with. (3) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (4), the person taking the sample under sub-section (1) shall,— (a) serve on the occupier or his agent or person in charge of the place, a notice, then and there, in such form as may be prescribed, of his intention to have it so analysed; (b) in the presence of the occupier or his agent or person, collect a sample for analysis; (c) cause the sample to be placed in a container or containers which shall be marked and sealed and shall also be signed both by the person taking the sample and the occupier or his agent or person; (d) send without delay, the container or the containers to the laboratory established or recognised by the Central Government under section 12. (4) When a sample is taken for analysis under sub-section (1) and the person taking the sample serves on the occupier or his agent or person, a notice under clause (a) of sub-section (3), then,— (a) in a case where the occupier, his agent or person wilfully absents himself, the person taking the sample shall collect the sample for analysis to be placed in a container or containers which shall be marked and sealed and shall also be signed by the person taking the sample, and (b) in a case where the occupier or his agent or person present at the time of taking the sample refuses to sign the marked and sealed container or containers of the sample as required under clause (c) of sub-section (3), the marked and sealed container or containers shall be signed by the person taking the samples, and the container or containers shall be sent without delay by the person taking the sample for analysis to the laboratory established or recognised under section 12 and such person shall inform the Government Analyst appointed or recognised under section 13 in writing, about the wilful absence of the occupier or his agent or person, or, as the case may be, his refusal to sign the container or containers.

74. Which section of EPA (1986) deals with Laboratories”?

(A) 8 (1)

(B) 12 (1)

(D) 21 (4)

Answer : (B)

Explanation : 12. Environmental laboratories.—(1) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,— (a) establish one or more environmental laboratories; (b) recognise one or more laboratories or institutes as environmental laboratories to carry out the functions entrusted to an environmental laboratory under this Act. (2) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules specifying— (a) the functions of the environmental laboratory; (b) the procedure for the submission to the said laboratory of samples of air, water, soil or other substance for analysis or tests, the form of the laboratory report thereon and the fees payable for such report; (c) such other matters as may be necessary or expedient to enable that laboratory to carry out its functions.

75. The Government appointed “Government analysts” under section __________of the EPA (1986).

(A) 13

(B) 17

(D) 23

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Government Analysts.—The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint or recognise such persons as it thinks fit and having the prescribed qualifications to be Government Analysts for the purpose of analysis of samples of air, water, soil or other substance sent for analysis to any environmental laboratory established or recognised under sub-section (1) of section 12.

76. Offences by companies are described in section___________ of the EPA (1986).

(A) 14

(B) 16

(D) 23

Answer : ( C)

Explanation : Offences by companies.—(1) Where any offence under this Act has been committed by a company, every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was directly in charge of, and was responsible to, the company for the conduct of the business of the company, as well as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly: Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall render any such person liable to any punishment provided in this Act, if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence. (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company and it is proved that the offence has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on the part of, any director, manager, secretary or other officer of the company, such director, manager, secretary or other officer shall also deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. Explanation.—For the purposes of this section,— (a) “company” means any body corporate, and includes a firm or other association of individuals; and (b) “director”, in relation to a firm, means a partner in the firm.

77. Which chapter of EPA (1986) deals with the “Protection of Action taken in good faith”?

(A) II

(B) III

(D) V

Answer : (C)

Explanation : CHAPTER IV - MISCELLANEOUS (section 18 - 26)

78. Which section of EPA (1986) is related to “Offences Government departments:”?

(A) 17

(B) 23

(D) 47

Answer :(A)

Explanation : Offences by Government Departments.—

(1) Where an offence under this Act has been committed by any Department of Government, the Head of the Department shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly: Provided that nothing contained in this section shall render such Head of the Department liable to any punishment if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an offence under this Act has been committed by a Department of Government and it is proved that the offence has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on the part of, any officer, other than the Head of the Department, such officer shall also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

79. by The Noise (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act was enacted on____________.

(A) 1976

(B) 1983

(D) None of above

Answer : (D)

80. Which is/are related to control of Noise Pollution?

(A) U.P. Municipalities Act 1916

(B) Mumbai Police Act 1951

(D) All of above

Answer : (D)

Explanation: All the three options are related to control of noise pollution in some way. The U.P. Municipalities Act 1916 empowers the municipal authorities to regulate or prohibit the playing of music, the beating of drums, or the use of loudspeakers in or near streets or public places. The Mumbai Police Act 1951 authorizes the police to make rules or regulations for the prevention of noise pollution, and imposes restrictions on the use of loudspeakers, horns, and other sound-producing devices. The U.P. Motor Vehicles Rules 1940 prohibit the use of multi-toned horns, sirens, or other appliances that produce harsh, shrill, loud, or alarming noises, and also require that every motor vehicle should be constructed and maintained so as not to cause undue noise when in motion. Therefore, all the above acts or rules have provisions to control noise pollution in their respective domains.

81. The Problem of Noise Pollution can be controlled as public Nuisance under __________ of IPC.

(A) 191 to 203

(B) 221 to 229

(D) 271 to 302

Answer : None of the Above

Explanation : 268- public nuisance

82. Case related to Noise Pollution in regard to Public Nuisance is/are:

(A) Krishna Gopal Vs. State of M.P.

(B) Carorimal Vishambhar Dayal Vs. State of Punjab

(D) All of above

Answer : (D)

Explanation: All the three cases are related to noise pollution in regard to public nuisance. In each case, the court dealt with the issue of whether the noise caused by certain activities or establishments was a source of injury or annoyance to the public or the people in the vicinity, and whether it violated the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. The court also applied the provisions of Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which empowers an executive magistrate to issue orders to remove or mitigate a public nuisance. The brief summary of each case is as follows:

In Krishna Gopal Vs. State of M.P, the petitioner was running a factory manufacturing glucose saline, where a boiler was installed and coal was used as fuel. The respondent, a resident of the locality, complained that the smoke and ash from the boiler caused a great deal of atmospheric pollution, and the noise and vibrations from the factory disturbed the peace and comfort of the people. The court held that the existence and working of the factory was a nuisance, and ordered its removal from the residential area.

Carorimal Vishambhar Dayal Vs. State of Punjab , the petitioner was running a metal factory, which was originally a flour-mill, in the outskirts of the town. The respondents, the owners and occupiers of the nearby buildings, complained that the noise and vibrations from the factory interfered with their enjoyment of property, and the smoke from the chimneys polluted the air. The court convicted the petitioner under Section 290 of the Penal Code, 1860, for causing public nuisance, and observed that the right to live in freedom from noise pollution was a fundamental right under Article 21.

In Dwarika Prasad Vs. V.K. Ray, the petitioner was a tenant in a building owned by the respondent. The respondent installed a generator in the premises, which caused noise and smoke pollution. The petitioner filed a suit for injunction, seeking to restrain the respondent from using the generator. The court granted the injunction, and held that the noise and smoke pollution caused by the generator was a public nuisance, and also violated the petitioner’s right to life under Article 21. The court also invoked Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, and directed the respondent to remove the generator.

83. Central Legislative efforts to control Noise Pollution is/are:

(A) Works man compensation Act 1923

(B) Factories Act 1948

(D) All of above

Answer : (D)

84. After the Amendment Act of _________ Noise Pollutants were added in the definition of Air Pollutants.

(A) 1983

(B) 1987

(D) 2006

Answer : (B) 1987.

Explanation: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was amended in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant. The amendment act added the following clause to the definition of air pollutant in Section 2(a) of the original act:

"(ii) any noise which may tend to be injurious to human beings or other living creatures or plants or property or environment;"

The amendment act also empowered the Central Pollution Control Board and the State Pollution Control Boards to take measures for the prevention, control or abatement of noise pollution, and to prescribe standards for noise in different areas and zones. The amendment act also introduced a provision for citizens to file complaints against noise pollution in the courts.

85. Which section of Environment Protection Act 1986 deals with the enactment of Rules to prevent Noise Pollution?

(A) 3 (1) (A)

(B) 4 (1) (B)

(D) 6 (2) (B)

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The maximum allowable limits of concentration of various environmental pollutants (including noise) for different areas.

86. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) rules___________ were enacted under environment protection Act 1986.

(A) 1990

(B) 2000

(D) 2010

Answer : (B)

87. Case related to fundamental rights versus Noise Pollution control is/are:

(A) Gurcharan Singh Vs. State of Harayana

(B) Masood Alam Vs. Police commissioner

(D) All of above

Answer : (D)

Explanation: All the three cases are related to the issue of noise pollution and its impact on the fundamental rights of the citizens. In each case, the court balanced the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution with the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, which includes the right to a peaceful, comfortable and pollution-free environment. The court also considered the provisions of the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and the relevant Acts and Regulations governing the use of loudspeakers and other sound-producing devices. The brief summary of each case is as follows:

In Gurcharan Singh Vs. State of Haryana, the appellant was convicted for abducting and raping a minor girl. He challenged his conviction on the ground that the girl had consented to go with him and that there were no marks of violence on her person. The Supreme Court rejected his contention and held that the consent of a girl below 16 years of age is immaterial for the offence of rape and that the absence of marks of violence does not negate the offence. The court also observed that the noise pollution caused by the appellant by using a loudspeaker to call the girl from her house was an aggravating circumstance and a violation of the right to life of the neighbours.

In Masood Alam Vs. Police Commissioner , the petitioners were Muslims who used a loudspeaker to recite the Azan (call for prayer) five times a day from their mosque. The Commissioner of Police refused to grant them permission to use the loudspeaker on the ground that it caused noise pollution and disturbed the peace and tranquility of the locality. The petitioners challenged the order of the Commissioner before the High Court, claiming that it violated their right to freedom of religion and speech. The High Court dismissed their petition and held that the use of loudspeaker was not an essential or integral part of Islam and that it was subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, morality and health under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. The court also held that the right to live in a noise-free environment was a part of the right to life under Article 21 and that the petitioners could not claim a right to create noise by amplifying their voice with the help of loudspeakers.

Church of God (Full Gospel) Vs. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association , the appellant was a church that used musical instruments and loudspeakers to conduct prayers and religious services. The respondent was a welfare association of the residents of the locality, who complained to the Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board and the police authorities that the noise pollution caused by the church disturbed their normal life and violated their right to life. The Board and the police authorities directed the church to stop using the loudspeakers and musical instruments. The church challenged their orders before the Supreme Court, contending that they infringed its right to freedom of religion and speech. The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal and held that the use of loudspeakers and musical instruments was not an essential or integral part of Christianity and that it was subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, morality and health under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. The court also held that the right to live in a noise-free environment was a part of the right to life under Article 21 and that the church could not claim a right to create noise by amplifying its voice or music with the help of loudspeakers and musical instruments.

88. The Draft of the precautionary principle was prepared by Centre for International Environmental Law in ___________.

(A) 1988

(B) 1991

(D) 1997

Answer : (B) 1991.

Explanation: The Centre for International Environmental Law (CIEL) prepared a draft of the precautionary principle in 1991, as part of a project on international environmental law and policy. The draft was based on a review of existing international instruments and national laws that incorporated the principle, as well as on consultations with experts and stakeholders. The draft aimed to provide a clear and comprehensive definition of the principle, its legal status, its scope of application, and its implications for DECISION-MAKING.

89. The Earth summit of Rio in __________ recognized the precautionary principle giving it utmost importance.

(A) 1990

(B) 1992

(D) 2001

Answer :(B) 1992.

Explanation: The Earth summit of Rio, also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from June 3 to 14, 1992. It was the largest and most influential international environmental conference ever held, with the participation of more than 170 countries and 2,400 representatives of non-governmental organizations (NGOs)1. One of the main outcomes of the summit was the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, which contained 27 principles to guide the global efforts for sustainable development. Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration recognized the precautionary principle as follows:

"In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by States according to their capabilities. Where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation."

The precautionary principle is a key concept in environmental law and policy, which states that when there is uncertainty about the potential harm of an activity or a substance, preventive actions should be taken to avoid or minimize the risk, even if the causal link or the magnitude of the harm is not fully established. The principle shifts the burden of proof from those who suffer the harm to those who cause it, and implies a greater responsibility for the protection of human health and the environment. The principle also encourages the use of alternative and less harmful options, and the participation of the public and the stakeholders in the decision-making process.

The Rio summit of 1992 was the first time that the precautionary principle was explicitly recognized and endorsed by the international community, giving it utmost importance and legitimacy. The principle has since been incorporated in various international treaties, declarations, and resolutions, such as the Convention on Biological Diversity, the Framework Convention on Climate Change, the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, the Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development, and the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. The principle has also been adopted by many national and regional laws and policies, such as the European Union’s Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union, the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, the Australian Environment Protection and Biodiversity Conservation Act, and the Indian National Environment Policy. The principle has also been applied and interpreted by various courts and tribunals, such as the International Court of Justice, the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea, the European Court of Justice, the Supreme Court of India, and the Federal Court of Australia.

Therefore, the Rio summit of 1992 was a landmark event in the history of the precautionary principle, as it recognized its importance and relevance for the global environmental governance and sustainable development.

90. According to Rio declaration there ________ in sustainable development & precautionary principle.

(A) Is no difference

(B) Several differences

(D) Only five differences

Answer : (A)

Explanation :According to Rio declaration there no difference in sustainable development & precautionary principle.

91. Principle_____________ of the Rio declaration expresses the expectation that governments will apply the precautionary principle widely according to their ability.

(A) 11

(B) 13

(D)17

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The principle that expresses the expectation that governments will apply the precautionary principle widely according to their ability is Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration. It states " In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by States according to their capabilities. Where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation."

The precautionary principle is a concept that aims to prevent or minimize potential harm to human health or the environment, even when there is uncertainty or lack of scientific evidence about the risks or impacts of an action or activity. It is often invoked in situations where there is a possibility of irreversible or catastrophic consequences, such as climate change, biodiversity loss, or genetic engineering.

92. Main case related to Polluter pays principle is/are:

(A) Indian council for Enviro legal action Vs. Union of India

(B) Ramaswami divisional Coimbatoor Vs. Sub magistrate

(D) All of above

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Indian council for Enviro legal action Vs. Union of India. This is the landmark case where the Supreme Court of India applied and defined the polluter pays principle for the first time. The case involved the environmental damage caused by chemical industries in Bichhri village, Rajasthan. The court ordered the industries to pay compensation for the restoration of the ecology and the health of the affected people. The polluter pays principle is a concept that holds the polluter liable for the pollution and the environmental degradation caused by their activities. It is one of the principles of environmental law in India and internationally.

Some other cases where the polluter pays principle was applied by the Indian courts are:

Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India (1996): The court held that the polluter pays principle is a part of the environmental jurisprudence of India and directed the closure of tanneries that were polluting the river Palar.

M.C. Mehta vs. Kamal Nath (1997): The court held that pollution is a civil wrong and ordered the removal of a motel that was obstructing the natural flow of the river Beas.

93. The Polluter pays principle has been accepted by principle ___________of the Rio declaration.

(A) 12

(B) 14

(D) 18

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Polluter pays principle has been accepted by principle 16 of the Rio declaration. It states:

National authorities should endeavour to promote the internalization of environmental costs and the use of economic instruments, taking into account the approach that the polluter should, in principle, bear the cost of pollution, with due regard to the public interest and without distorting international trade and investment.

94. The Modern concept of sustainable development is derived mostly from the ___________ Brundtland report.

(A) 1983

(B) 1987

(D) 2001

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The modern concept of sustainable development is derived mostly from the 1987 Brundtland report. This report, also known as Our Common Future, was published by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED), chaired by Norwegian Prime Minister Gro Harlem Brundtland. The report introduced the definition of sustainable development as:

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

The report also outlined the main challenges and opportunities for achieving sustainable development in various sectors and regions of the world.

95. The UN level sustainable development Goals (2015-2030) address the global changes including ______________.

(A) Poverty

(B) Inequality

(D) All of above

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The UN level sustainable development goals (SDGs) are a set of 17 goals and 169 targets that aim to address the global challenges related to poverty, inequality, environmental degradation, and more. The SDGs were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as a universal call to action to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all by 2030.

96. Which case is known as the Ganga Pollution case?

(A) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India AIR 1987

(B) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India AIR 1988

(D) None of above

Answer : (B)

97. Which case is/are marked as the emergence of the principle of Absolute liability Environmental Protection?

(A) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India AIR 1987

(B) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India AIR 1988

(C)Municipal Ratlam Corporation Vs. Vardhichand AIR 1980

(D) All of above

Answer : (A)

98. The Environment Appellate Authority Act is deemed to have come on_________.

(A) 30/1/1997

(B) 13/3/1997

(D) 13/3/1998

Answer : (C)

Explanation : According to the web search results, the Environment Appellate Authority Act is deemed to have come into force on the 30th day of January, 1997. This Act was enacted to provide for the establishment of a National Environment Appellate Authority to hear appeals with respect to restriction of areas in which any industries, operations or processes or class of industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

99. The Chairperson of the National Environment appellate Authority holds office of_________.

(A) 03 years

(B) 05 years

(D) 09 years for a term

Answer : (A)

Explanation : According to the web search results, the Chairperson of the National Environment Appellate Authority holds office for a term of three years from the date of entering the office. The Chairperson is eligible for re-appointment for another term of three years, but cannot hold office after attaining the age of seventy years. The Chairperson must have been a Judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court. The Chairperson is appointed by the President of India.

100. The bill of the National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995 received the assent of President of India on:

(A) 01/01/1995

(B) 12/03/1995

(D) 11/10/1995

Answer : (C)

Explanation : According to the web search results, the bill of the National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995 received the assent of President of India on 17th June, 1995. This Act was enacted to provide for strict liability for damages arising out of any accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance and for the establishment of a National Environment Tribunal for effective and expeditious disposal of cases arising from such accident.

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